Matthew 26:20

Now when evening came, Jesus was reclining at the table with the twelve disciples.

This cannot mean, "He was eating the Passover." That is not what the passage says. Those who assume that this was the Passover should explain why Jesus ate it sitting down, or rather "reclining at the table," as the Greek has it. The Law specifically required that it be eaten standing up (Exodus 12:11); and the fact that the Jews no longer honored that commandment did not change God's law. We may be certain that Christ never concurred in "making the word of God of none effect" by accepting human tradition in the place of it (see notes, Matthew 15:6ff). Why should Matthew have mentioned that Jesus was "reclining" at the table, unless this had pertinence and significance? Must we conclude that Christ had thereby consented with the Jews of his generation to eat the Passover lying down, instead of standing up as God's law required; or is it intended that we should see that this is not the Passover at all?