Verse 44
David therefore called him Lord ,.... Or, "my Lord", as the Syriac and Ethiopic versions read; or, "his Lord", as the Arabic version. This is the inference from the words before cited Psalm 110:1 , upon which the following question is asked,
how is he then his son ? how can these things be reconciled? in what sense can he be both his Lord and son? See Gill on Matthew 22:45 .
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