Verse 15
Suffer it to be so
Why one who needed no repentance should insist upon receiving a rite which signified confession (Matthew 3:6) and repentance (Matthew 3:11) is nowhere directly explained. It may be suggested:
(1) That Jesus was now to receive His anointing with the Holy Spirit (Matthew 3:16) unto His threefold office of Prophet, Priest, and King. In the Levitical order Exodus 29:4-7 the high priest was first washed, then anointed. While Christ's priestly work did not begin till He "offered Himself without spot to God" Hebrews 9:14 and His full manifestation as the King- Priest after the order of Melchizedek awaits the kingdom (See Scofield "Hebrews 9:14- :") yet He was then anointed, once for all.
(2) But John's baptism was the voice of God to Israel, and the believing remnant responded (Matthew 3:5). It was an act of righteousness on the part of Him who had become, as to the flesh, an Israelite, to take His place with this believing remnant.
righteousness (See Scofield "Matthew 3:5- :") .
Be the first to react on this!
