Mark 8:31

And he began to teach them that the Son of man must suffer many things, and be rejected by the elders, and the chief priests, and the scribes, and be killed, and after three days rise again.

THE ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE PASSION; THE RESURRECTION; AND THE SECOND COMING

This paragraph beginning with Mark 8:31 and continuing through Mark 9:1 is characteristic of Mark in that several unrelated things are gathered together in it, as in Mark 5:21-25.

Scholars have a custom of formalizing three definite announcements of Jesus' approaching death, resurrection, and second coming; and despite the fact of Matthew's detailing three distinct occasions when such prophecies were given (Matthew 16:21; 17:22; and Matthew 20:17), it is the conviction here that Christ spoke frequently of those epic events which at that time began to loom so ominously upon the horizon of our Lord's public ministry. Therefore, the only way to view these various prophecies is completely, taking them all together, here is such a summary:

Death would occur in Jerusalem.

It would come with his own consent.

It would follow his rejection by Israel.

The elders would participate in it.

The chief priests would cause it.

The scribes would approve it.

He would be killed (not merely die).

He would be crucified.

He would suffer many things.

He would be condemned to death (indicating trials).

He would be "delivered up" (betrayed).

Gentiles would also be instruments of his death.

He would be mocked.

He would be scourged.

He would rise from the dead "after three days".

After three days ... Cranfield's view that these words are "an indefinite expression for a short time"[11] is unacceptable, being unsupported by any logical argument. The tradition of Friday crucifixion underlies all such meanings imported into words like these. See under Mark 15:42 for extensive discussion of "Christ Crucified on Thursday."

In the entire history of humanity, there is no comparable example of one so precisely detailing in advance the circumstances of his judicial murder, and with the unique promise of rising from the dead after three days! Who but God come in the flesh could have done such a thing as this?

WHY JESUS PREFERRED THE TITLE OF "THE SON OF MAN"

The Son of Man ... We have capitalized the whole title as should have been done in the sacred text; because, as Cranfield said, "Jesus by `the Son of Man' always means himself."[12] It was the title Jesus preferred, as evidenced by his substitution of it in this passage for "Christ" (Messiah) which Peter had just used in his confession. As to why Jesus preferred this title, it may be noted that: (1) It is more majestic than "Messiah," a title accurate enough in its biblical context but somewhat inadequate because of the false notions the Jewish leaders had fastened upon it. (2) This title uniquely combined the ideas of transcendent and glorious majesty with vicarious suffering for the benefit of others. (3) During his humiliation as a man, it was the most appropriate badge of his humanity, stressing his perfect manhood and emphasizing his office as the sin-bearer for all men. (4) The very ambiguity (in Jewish idiom, the expression `son of man' often had the meaning of `a mere man,' as in Psalms 8:4) of the title was especially valuable to Jesus' purpose of proclaiming himself in such a manner that the spiritual mind would perceive his glory and the unspiritual mind would not perceive it. The meaning of the title would thus appear to some hearers in capitals, SON OF MAN, and to others in lower case, "son of man." It was thus a most effective instrument for polarizing his hearers. The double meaning of the title is also found in the Old Testament as well as the New Testament, Daniel 7:13 having a definite reference to the Messiah: "One like the Son of Man came with the clouds of heaven to the Ancient of days." (5) The title "Son of Man" also had the advantage of a subtle but exceedingly significant connection with the suffering Servant of the prophecy of Isaiah 53, categorically refuting the bias of Bultmann who said that "Jesus' sayings reveal no trace of a consciousness on his part of being the Servant of God of Isaiah 53."[13] "It seems scarcely open to doubt that Jesus did apply Isaiah 53 to himself."[14] There can be no doubt at all that by Jesus' use of the title `Son of Man' he meant everything that pertains to human redemption.

[11] Ibid., p. 278.

[12] Ibid., p. 273

[13] R. Bultmann, Theology of the New Testament, I (1948: English translation by K. Grobel, London: 1952), p. 31.

[14] C. E. B. Cranfield, op. cit., p. 277.