Romans 1:17

For therein is revealed a righteousness of God from faith to faith: as it is written, But the righteous shall five by faith.

First, the expression "a righteousness of God" should be read "the righteousness of God," as in KJV and RSV. One may only conjecture as to why the English Revised Version (1885) translators gave such a rendition, especially in view of the fact that they rendered the parallel expression a moment later, in verse 18, as "the wrath of God." Barmby noted that "`A wrath of God' has no intelligent meaning,"[27] and the same is true of "a righteousness of God." As Barmby noted, the two expressions simply mean "God's righteousness" and "God's wrath."

Regarding the broader question of "the righteousness of God," if this refers to the righteousness imputed by God to human beings (forensic righteousness), or the eternal righteousness of God's character (intrinsic righteousness), the evidence indicates that the latter is meant, not only here, but throughout Romans. We shall not go into the exhaustive dissertations of scholars on this place. The writer finds himself in strong agreement with Barmby; and, therefore, Barmby's critical exegesis is summarized in that commentator's own words. Convincing as Barmby's analysis is, however, the overriding consideration in accepting the "righteousness" of this verse as a reference to God's intrinsic righteousness, rather than to man's forensic, or imputed righteousness, is found in Romans itself (Romans 3:25,26), where God's righteousness in "passing over the sins done aforetime" is the real key to the meaning of "righteousness" throughout the epistle, plainly referring to an attribute of God, and not to any imputed righteousness of people; and even in the places where the latter is spoken of, the great consideration in the background is always God's intrinsic righteousness. A paraphrase of Barmby's summary on this question is:

It is usual to interpret this as meaning man's imputed or forensic righteousness; but if Paul meant that, why did he not use the words he used in Philippians 3:9, where he WAS speaking of that? The phrase suggests the sense in which the words are continually used in the Old Testament. The quotation from Habakkuk does not refute this meaning. The Old Testament usage of the term "righteousness" in Psalms 18:2 undoubtedly means "God's righteousness"; and the constant use of the phrase in a known sense in the Orr would naturally lead us to think that when Paul used it, he would have used it in the same sense. It is maintained in this commentary (with all due deference to the distinguished ancients and moderns who have held otherwise) that not only in this opening passage, but throughout the epistle, this phrase means God's own eternal righteousness, and that even in passages where a righteousness that is of faith is spoken of as communicated to man, the essential idea beyond is still that of God's own righteousness including believers in itself.[28]

From faith to faith ... Hodge declared this to mean "by faith alone";[29] or "entirely by faith";[30] Dodd, as quoted by Murray, rendered it, "by faith from beginning to end";[31] and the New English Bible has "a way that starts with faith and ends with faith."[32] The student who strives for accuracy in understanding God's word will at once be impressed with the truth that such paraphrases as those just cited can in no sense be honored as TRANSLATIONS of what the Holy Spirit wrote through Paul. Upon a disputed passage like this, the greatest degree of accuracy, according to Bruce, is the version used in this commentary, that is, the English Revised Version (1885). He said:

The Bible text used throughout, except where otherwise indicated, is the English Revised Version of 1881. This remains, in spite of many more recent translations (including the New English Bible of 1961) the most helpful English version of the New Testament for purposes of accurate study.[33]

Paul, therefore, wrote none of the phrases mentioned above, but "from faith to faith," and any paraphrase of the meaning would have to be something that does not violate that text. The Phillips New Testament has such a paraphrase, thus: "a process begun and continued by their faith. Certainly, the notion that Paul meant "faith alone" by this expression should be rejected out of hand, especially in view of the fact that the expression "faith alone" occurs never in Paul's writings, and only once in the New Testament, where James declared that people are "not justified by faith alone" (James 2:24).

"As it is written, But the righteous shall live by faith ..." is a quotation from Habakkuk 2:4 and is understood as Old Testament support of the principle of salvation by faith, it being the great end of the Christian religion to produce faith in all people, inasmuch as it may be possible. Without faith, it is impossible to please God (Hebrews 11:6); and the statement here that the just shall live by faith is emphasis upon the fact of man's utter inability to live without it.

The two verses just considered are the theme of the Book of Romans, namely, God's Eternal Righteousness as Revealed in the Gospel. Immediately upon announcement of this theme, Paul launched into the section vindicating God's righteousness in accounting all people sinners and fully deserving God's wrath.