Romans 10:16

But they did not all hearken to the glad tidings. For Isaiah saith, Lord, who hath believed our report?

But they have not all obeyed the gospel ... (as in the KJV) is a far preferable rendition to the stilted words here, and one may only conjecture as to why a good rendition was replaced with a poor one; but Barrett gives a glimpse of what troubles translators and commentators in the KJV's forthright rendition, thus:

That "disobedience" means unbelief is shown by the quotation that follows.[14]

Thus, it is the undeniable reference to obedience which the advocates of salvation by "faith only" would like to edit out of this passage; and Barrett did it by the simple assertion that "disobedience" means unbelief, an assertion that is denied by every dictionary of the English language ever written! That "disobedience" does not mean "disbelief" is proved millions of times by the believers who do not obey. (See John 12:42,43 for New Testament example of this.)

The word translated "hearken," to be sure, means "to obey," as invariably spelled out in concordances and lexicons; but "hearken" has a secondary meaning of merely hearing (not intended in the Scriptural use at all), a meaning that is totally out of place in this verse. This word occurs eighteen times in the New Testament; and several of these are here cited (from Young's Analytical Concordance) in order to show what is meant by the apostle in this verse:

The winds and the sea obey him (Matthew 8:27).

Children obey your parents in the Lord (Ephesians 6:1).

Servants obey in all things your masters (Colossians 3:22).

That obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus (1 Thessalonians 1:8).

Even as Sarah obeyed Abraham (1 Peter 3:6).

Abraham, when he was called to go ... obeyed (Hebrews 11:8).

Our translators could not have had any logical reason for rendering the same word as "hearken" in the verse before us, except, possibly, that of softening the impact of these words. For these reasons, the KJV is preferable in this verse. "They have not all obeyed the gospel."

Locke's explanation of this first sentence is thus:

(Paul) you tell us that you are sent from God to preach the gospel; and if it be so, how comes it that all who have heard have not received and obeyed; especially, from what you insinuate, the messengers of good tidings were so welcome to them? To this Paul replied, out of Isaiah, that the messengers sent from God were not believed by all.[15]

Who hath believed our report ... is Isaiah's opening statement in Isaiah 53, a chapter rich with reference to the Messiah, and is therefore very appropriate here. Just as ancient Israel did not believe the prophets regarding the Messiah, that he should be a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief, despised and rejected by people, etc., just so the Jews of Paul's day would not believe and obey the gospel in order to be saved.

[14] C. K. Barrett, op. cit., p. 205.

[15] John Locke, op. cit., p. 349.