Verse 9
"We see not our signs:
There is no more any prophet;
Neither is there among us any that knoweth how long.
How long, O God, shall the adversary reproach?
Shall the enemy blaspheme thy name forever?"
"There is no more any prophet" (Psalms 74:9). This does not appear to be a reference to that long inter-testamental period of Israel's history, during which the voice of prophecy in Israel was providentially silenced. As Ash suggested, we believe this refers to the time when there was no longer any prophet in Jerusalem and Judaea.[13]
If this psalm was written after Jeremiah had been taken to Egypt, Psalms 74:9 and Psalms 74:10, below, would be properly understood as reference to the fact that there was no longer any prophet in "the land" of Israel. With Daniel and Ezekiel in Babylon, and with Jeremiah no longer in Jerusalem, there would indeed have been "no prophet" anymore. To us this appears to be the certain meaning of the passage. The rebellious residue of Israel that was still in Jerusalem were very conceited, believing that only they themselves were any longer the object of God's concern, whereas, in truth, God's true people at that time were in no sense whatever identified with Jerusalem, but with Babylon. The psalmist appears to be, in a class with Jeremiah, that is, a member of God's "true people." Thus with Jeremiah having been forcefully taken to Egypt, there would have been indeed "no prophet" available to the psalmist.
Certainly Ash's statement is correct that there are enough alternative explanations of what is meant by 'no prophet,' "To warrant the conclusion that this verse could refer to the fall of Jerusalem in 587 to 586 B.C."[14]
Be the first to react on this!