1 John 3:6

If abiding in God equals being a Christian, as many interpreters believe, this verse appears to contradict what John wrote in 1 John 1:8; 1 John 1:10. There he said that Christians sin (cf. 1 John 2:1; 1 John 2:15; 1 John 2:29; 1 John 3:12; 1 John 3:18; 1 John 5:16; 1 John 5:21). It also seems to contradict personal experience since genuine Christians do indeed sin.

The key to understanding this statement, I believe, lies in the other terms that John used in the verse: "abides," "has seen," and "knows." John used these words throughout this epistle to refer to a believer who is walking in intimate fellowship with God (1 John 1:7; 1 John 2:3; 1 John 2:10). Still does this view not contradict what John said about the depravity of sinners, even Christian sinners (1 John 1:8)? I believe John was claiming that when a Christian walks in close fellowship with God he does not sin. The abiding believer never repudiates God’s authority over him by doing anything that resists God’s law or will while he is abiding in Christ. If he does, his fellowship with God suffers; He no longer "knows" God in that intimate sense. He no longer "sees" God because he has moved out of the light into darkness.

"John is thus saying that (translating the Gr. literally) ’everyone who lives in him (Jesus) does not sin’; and by this he means that an intimate and ongoing relationship with Christ (ho en auto menon, ’the one who lives in him,’ using the present tense) precludes the practice of sin . . ." [Note: Smalley, pp. 158-59. Cf. John 15:5.]

There was no sin whatsoever in Jesus Christ (1 John 3:5). He consistently abode in (obeyed) the Father (cf. John 14:9). The Christian who consistently "abides" in a sinless Person does not sin (1 John 3:6). If we could abide in Christ without interruption, we would be sinless. Unfortunately we cannot do that.

Some Christians have used this verse to support the theory that Christians are sinless and perfect. Scripture and experience contradict this position (e.g., 1 John 1:8-9; et al.). Others have used it to teach that a Christian does not habitually sin, but this too is contrary to experience and the same Scripture. Advocates of this second view usually support it with the present tense of the Greek verb (harmartanei) that they take to mean "keeps on sinning."

"In modern times a popular expedient for dealing with the difficulties perceived in 1 John 3:6; 1 John 3:9 is to appeal to the use of the Greek present tense. It is then asserted that this tense necessitates a translation like, ’Whoever has been born of God does not go on sinning,’ or, ’does not continually sin.’ The inference to be drawn from such renderings is that, though the Christian may sin somewhat (how much is never specified!), he may not sin regularly or persistently. But on all grounds, whether linguistic or exegetical, the approach is indefensible.

"As has been pointed out by more than one competent Greek scholar, the appeal to the present tense invites intense suspicion. No other text can be cited where the Greek present tense, unaided by qualifying words, can carry this kind of significance. Indeed, when the Greek writer or speaker wished to indicate that an action was, or was not, continual, there were special words to express this." [Note: Hodges, The Gospel . . ., pp. 58-59. See also Smalley, pp. 159-60; and Yarbrough, p. 183.]

"The perfect tense in Greek signifies a state of affairs. It is not concerned with the past occurrence of the event but with its reality, its existence." [Note: J. P. Louw, "Verbal Aspect in the First Letter of John," Neotestamentica 9 (1975):101.]

"The perfect tense here is not intended to categorize a person as either saved or unsaved, since even believers sin (1 John 1:8). Instead, the statement is intended to stigmatize all sin as the product, not only of not abiding, but also of ignorance and blindness toward God." [Note: Hodges, The Epistles . . ., p. 136.]

If we were to translate 1 John 1:8 and 1 John 5:16, where the present tense also occurs, "do not continually have sin" and "continually sinning a sin" respectively, these verses would contradict 1 John 3:6. It would involve no self-deception to say that we do not continually have sin (1 John 1:8) since whoever is born of God does not continually sin (1 John 3:6). Furthermore if one born of God does not continually sin (1 John 3:1), how could a Christian see his brother Christian continually sinning (1 John 5:16)? Suppose we translated the present tense in John 14:6 the same way: "No one continually comes to the Father except through Me." This would imply that occasionally someone might come to God in another way. No orthodox translator would offer that as an acceptable rendering of John 14:6, and it is not acceptable in 1 John 3:6 either.

". . . it is not surprising that commentators have attempted to water down John’s teaching to refer merely to the believer’s freedom from habitual sin. But we must not misinterpret the text for pastoral reasons. Properly interpreted, the text remains a source of comfort." [Note: Marshall, p. 187.]

Another view takes John to mean that no one who abides in Christ has the power to sin, or, to put it positively, Christians who abide in Him have the power not to sin. [Note: Smalley, pp. 161-62, 164, 172.] Yet this is an idea that the reader must import into the verse. While it is true that Christians who abide in Christ have the power not to sin, this does not seem to be what John meant here. He seemed to link abiding and not sinning in a more direct cause and effect relationship.

1 John 3:4 sets forth the essential character of sin, 1 John 3:5 relates it to the person and work of Christ, and 1 John 3:6 relates it to the whole human race.