Many people attack the King James Bible and say it is filled with errors. One of the most common attacks is the translation of the word "Easter" in Acts 12:4. Most modern versions translate the Greek word there pascha as "Passover", but why did the KJV translators choose Easter instead?

Many people say the word Easter derives it's name from a pagan goddess named Eostre, but the evidence for this is slim to none.

This does not mean we should partake of the pagan bunnies and eggs springtime fertility festivities. This is simply about the etymology of the word Easter.

Many believers that try to defend the KJV are doing so with zeal not according to knowledge in repeating what Sam Gipp has written in his Answer Book about Easter. His argument is refuted in this teaching, but the KJV is still defended as being without error.

I hope you watch all the way through before coming to a conclusion. Thanks.

Show notes: https://www.scribd.com/document/345325318/Is-Easter-a-Mistranslation-in-the-King-James-Bible-The-WHOLE-Story-About-Acts-12-4-STBC

Will Kinney's article on Easter: http://brandplucked.webs.com/easter.htm

Show MP3: https://soundcloud.com/user-302135997/is-easter-a-mistranslation-in-the-king-james-bible-the-whole-story-about-acts-12-4-stbc

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