This letter to the Laodiceans that Paul mentions in Colossians 4:16 "And when this epistle is read among you, cause that it be read also in the church of the Laodiceans; and that ye likewise read the epistle from Laodicea" was included in John Wycliffe's Bible after Apocalyps (Revelation) although it is not in the modern versions of the Bible.

It has been considered a Lost Book of the Bible for Centuries... But my question is... if it has been considered lost, when did it get "lost" if John Wycliffe included it in his translation of the FIRST English Bible in the 1380s??