#Trinity
#God
#Jesus

Join me later this evening as we continue our series on where and how the Bible contradicts the Trinity. While we realize many have been raised believing in the Trinity, if it is not actually taught in the Bible it should not be required belief for Christians. Indeed, if what is explicitly taught in the Bible contradicts the Trinity it is best to avoid using it when it comes to worshiping the biblical God.

The sixteenth text we will use to show the Trinity conflicts with the Bible is John 1:14-18, which concludes John’s Prologue after first presenting the “Word” as “a god” who was “with God” in the beginning of Genesis 1:1. John also writes about the Word being used by God in creation, like Wisdom of Proverbs Chapter 8, followed by the Word as the agent in creation “coming to his own people,” to his “own home,” which in Part 15 we related mostly to the people and the home of Michael, the “Great Prince” of Israel his people.—Daniel 10:21; 12:1-2

In tonight’s conclusion, we will see how John writes explicitly that this Word who was with God “became flesh,” “a man,” like we also read in Philippians 2:5-8. John goes on to state they got a view of the Word’s “glory,” a glory that belongs to “an only-begotten with a father” (verse 14). In the next verse (15) John reinforces the Word’s pre-existence by speaking of John the Baptist describing Jesus as “existing before,” John in a pre-human sense. The climax to our reading presents us with a significant textual variant, with one reading using “only-begotten” to describe the type of “god” the Word was, and the other main reading using “only-begotten” for “son” in reference to the Word, the one who “made known” to us the “God” whom “no one has seen at any time.”

But is the reading “god” versus “son” in verse 18 really so different in its meaning when applied to the Word, as the “only-begotten with the Father”? What does “only-begotten” mean? Is it the same as “creation”? How is it “no one has seen God at any time” when nearly if not every English Bible translation of Judges 13:22 reads in part, “We have seen God!”?—New International Version.

We will answer these questions and more tonight in Part 16. Please join me to discuss these and other related questions and issues if you can do so with genuine interest and respect.

Link to Greg Stafford's article, "Bart D. Ehrman, Daniel B. Wallace, and the Syntax and Meaning of John 1:18" (November 1, 2011): http://elihubooks.blogspot.com/2011/11/bart-d-ehrman-daniel-b-wallace-and.html

To watch the prior shows in this series, see here: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLpGn2SXupSYPWidVY6iWGGK0CsjCZIrxG

To watch Greg Stafford’s recent video, “John 1:1 Made Easy—No Greek!” see here:
https://youtu.be/Mgal9ZY9emE

CWJah Web Page:
http://www.CWJah.org

Order books and videos by Greg Stafford: http://www.elihubooks.com/content/books_media.php

Articles by Greg Stafford on "Watching the Ministry" Blog:
http://elihubooks.blogspot.com/

Greg Stafford's Topical Index:
http://www.elihubooks.com/content/topical_index.php

CWJ Facebook page:
https://www.facebook.com/CWJah/

Follow Greg Stafford on Twitter:
https://twitter.com/TheGreatMessage