There is a growing number of people becoming aware of historic writings of antiquity to use a fancy word... I am referring to Christians who penned writings from the 80 to 300 AD that depict how Christianity really was, as handed down from the Apostles. These Ante Nicene (ANF) writings took many forms: some are monologues intended for a particular group of individuals, some were at that time accepted as suitable for Spiritual edification and likely treated just as scripture (Epistle of Barnabas, Pastor of Hermas). Some of them were Apologies (meaning a defense) on behalf of Christianity, to the reigning leaders of the day against the rumors and lies being made about the Christians (people influenced by demons). Now why did they disparage them? Because they really came out of the world, stopped following its ways, as the apostles teach in the New Testament. These writings are making me reexamine what the NT actually teaches, & that Jesus intended serious adherence to his words.

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This is an Overview of what Part 5 of my Divorce and Remarriage series will cover in the future, wherein I will show, and further examine, the evidence that I simply describe here. In fact, will likely have more evidence that I am forgetting to mention here. 
 
I want to describe the main problem with Matthew 19:9; not that it is translated incorrectly, but unbeknownst to most of us, there are two main variations of it where all of the manuscripts for it could be put into two basic categories, aka families, let's say. One family is what is the underlying Greek for all of our modern English bibles, and the other is what I am MAKING KNOWN that I have found. It reads just like Matthew 5:32. My main point in this video is that it is THIS FAMILY that I believe I can prove was what Matthew the apostle penned in his original autograph (FYI - manuscript - scholars called the "original" manuscript the autograph). 
 
Our modern English bibles, including KJV, read Matthew 19:9 to say that a man will only be guilty of adultery 
1. IF he looses (releases) from her AND REMARRIES 
2. and IF the wife is not guilty of πορνεια (porneia). 
i.e If she is guilty of porneia, and he puts her away and remarries, it says he is not guilty of adultery, yet the whole NT says otherwise. 
 
[So this has been a huge EXIT route for so-called Christians out of an undesirable marriage.] 
 
But the oldest manuscripts and Codices for Matthew 19:9 make NO ALLOWANCE for remarriage in either case... just says the husband will be the CAUSE of the wife's adultery: 
1. IF he looses from her 
2. and IF she is not ALREADY committing sexual sin (πορνεια - porneia) 
 
[Again, this is ALSO what Matthew 5:32 says. Is this the consistent message of Jesus? We will examine that here, and in great detail in Part 5 of my Divorce and Remarriage series.] 
 
Also, almost without exception, most greek manuscripts for Matthew 19:9 in the first 1000+ years also have this last part that we ALSO see in Matthew 5:32 that the KJV has at the tail end of Matthew 19:9 but many others do not. 
..."and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery." 
 
OLDEST MANUSCRIPTS WITH SUPPORTING EVIDENCE SAYS MATTHEW 19:9 READS THUS: 
9 But I say to you that whoever divorces his wife for any reason except sexual immorality causes her to commit adultery; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery. 
 
Notice nothing is said that would imply he can remarry like it does in our English bibles that comes from the other manuscript family that 
1. Matt 19:9 comes later than the oldest ones 
2. Does not reflect the GREEK SPEAKING Ante Nicene Fathers (2nd & 3rd century Early Church writers so closely connected to the Apostles or their students) 
3. Does not reflect Tatian's Diatesseron conflation of the 4 gospels written about 160 AD. 
4. Does not reflect Origen's commentary (230 AD) on Matthew 19, which would suggest he did not have a manuscript reading like our Matthew 19:9 
5. INTERNAL EVIDENCE - it says "case" instead of "cause" or "guilt & responsibility" in Matthew 19:10, but the proper translation for (η αιτια) in this verse should read as: 
"If this is the CAUSE of a man with his wife, it is better not to marry". (This was brought to my attention in the Textual Scholar's work named Dr Ruben Swanson; so I looked into it.) 
 
* To #5 above, if Jesus said, as our modern bibles depict, that the husband is not guilty for remarrying unless she is not committing PORNEIA, they surely would not have said "It is better not to marry". Makes no sense that the husband, in our bibles, bears SO LITTLE RISK OF BLAME AT JUDGMENT DAY for his wife in our modern bibles, and not to mention Matthew 19:9's allowance for divorce and remarriage, to be a catalyst for them to say "it is better not to marry". If they could remarry, why say that? If there is huge risk of blame, i.e CAUSING HER CONDEMNATION thru stumbling her into ADULTERY, consequently condemning the husband, now this would make one say "it is better not to marry". 
 
Here is the greek word άιτία 
http://biblehub.com/greek/strongs_156.htm 
 
...again, if it reads like Matthew 5:32 where this is ALL ABOUT THE BLAME OF THE HUSBAND causing HIS WIFE TO COMMIT ADULTERY... THEN "it would be better not to marry". 
 
...apparently he would be guilty because of the abandonment pressure he exerts on her to remarry or go be with another. Jesus does not hold him responsible, however, if she is already committing sexual sin already (porneia). 
 
Then the disciples saying it is better not to take that risk to marry, it makes sense that Jesus then says in 
Vs 11-12 whoever will be a voluntary eunuch, should do so (validating the disciples' realization that it is better not to marry. Paul speaks this way at least 3x in 1 Corinthians 7 that it is better not to marry. Paul validates what Jesus is saying here.) 
 
* Study Matthew 19 in your bible using Matthew 5:32 as your verse 9, instead of our modern English bible's Matthew 19:9 and watch and see if the blinders come off.

This is an Overview of what Part 5 of my Divorce and Remarriage series will cover in the future, wherein I will show, and further ...

Did the Original Matthew 19:9 Allow Remarriage?

There is some confusion about what the point or theme Jesus is making Matthew 5:32? Why is Jesus using the word "EXCEPT"? Except for what? Divorce? Remarriage? Porneia (Πορνεια in NT Greek) is unlawful, immoral sexual sin of any kind among married or unmarried people. Many writings exist in NT "Koine" Greek outside the NT to make that clear.

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Did the Original Matthew 19:9 Allow Remarriage?

What is the point of Matthew 5:32?

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Did the Original Matthew 19:9 Allow Remarriage?

What is the point of Matthew 5:32?

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