" And now, Father, glorify me at your side with the glory I had with you before the world was created. " (John 17:5, NET)

Did Jesus really mean what He said here or was He speaking in riddles? Does this verse refute Modalism, Socinianism and even Arianism? Was this "glory" a divine, eternal glory? What about the "glory" mentioned in verses 22 and 24? Is the same glory or different?

There's actually no direct or obvious connection between the "glory" in verses 22 and 24 and the glory in verse 5.

Matthew Poole also said on verse 24:

"Here our Saviour wills his disciples eternal life; or rather prays to his Father, that he would preserve his disciples unto, and at last bestow upon them, eternal life and salvation; so as the phrase,

whom thou hast given me, is not to be restrained to the apostles, but to be extended to all those who, belonging to the election of grace, shall hereafter be made heirs of glory, and have everlasting life and happiness. This he expresses under the notion of being with him where he is, as John 14:3; which is called a being ever with the Lord, 1 Thessalonians 4:17; and certainly this is the highest happiness, to be where the Son of God is.

That they may behold my glory, is the same thing with, that they may be made partakers of my glory: as to see death, is, in Scripture phrase, to die; and to see life, is to live; so, to behold the glory of God, is to be glorified.

For, saith our Saviour, thou lovedst me before the foundation of the world, both as thy only begotten Son, and as the person in whom thou hast chosen all them, and whom thou hast set apart to be the Mediator between God and man; and therefore I know that thou wilt glorify me, and that thou wilt in this thing hear my prayers, and glorify them also, whom thou hast given to me to be redeemed by my blood."

The certainty of the glory Christ receives in John 17:5 [from the Father] is also a certainty for His elect whom He prays for in John 17 as the high priest because He [the Son] gives that glory to them.