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Romans 8:3 states that God sent “His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh as an offering for sin …” The text states that the Son was sent “in the likeness of sinful flesh.” In other words, the Son was sent “in the flesh.” There is nothing in the text to suggest that an alleged “Heavenly Son” was sent (from heaven to earth) in the flesh! 
 
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Romans 8:3 states that God sent “His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh as an offering for sin …” The text states that the Son was sent “in the likeness of sinful flesh.” In other words, the Son was sent “in the flesh.” There is nothing in the text to suggest that an alleged “Heavenly Son” was sent (from heaven to earth) in the flesh!

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How God Sent His Son Into The World? Romans 8:3

John 1:1 never says, “In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God.” The text says, “In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.” If we do not assume that the word (logos) is another God beside the Father, then John 1:2 should be translated as “it” or “this was in the beginning with God” rather than “he was in the beginning with God. For the Son of God was with the Father only in God’s expressed thought (logos) before having a beginning by his begetting. 
Trinitarian scholars have had a great influence on the vast majority of Bible translations what we have today. Just as scientists who believe in evolution often use their personal bias when interpreting the facts of science, so Trinitarian scholars have often used their personal bias in the various translation we have today. 
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John 1:1 never says, “In the beginning was the Son, and the Son was with God, and the Son was God.” The text says, “In the beginning was the word, and the word was with God, and the word was God.” If we do not assume that the word (logos) is another God beside the Father, then John 1:2 should be translated as “it” or “this was in the beginning with God” rather than “he was in the beginning with God. For the Son of God was with the Father only in God’s expressed thought (logos) before having a beginning by his begetting.   
Trinitarian scholars have had a great influence on the vast majority of Bible translations what we have today. Just as scientists who believe in evolution often use their personal bias when interpreting the facts of science, so Trinitarian scholars have often used their personal bias in the various translation we have today.   
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What Was In The Beginning With God? John 1:1-4, 1 John 1:1-2

The scriptures inform us that the child born and Son given existed as the impersonal word of God the Father as His own expressed thought before being granted a life by the Father. For Christ Jesus as a true man said in John 5:26 (BSB), “For as the Father has life in Himself, so also He has granted the Son to have life in Himself.” Since the Son of God as the Son of God was “granted … life in himself,” we know that the Son is the man who was granted life as a true man within the Hebrew virgin. Therefore the Son could not be a timeless God the Son Person beside God the Father, as the scriptures say that the Son is “the brightness of His (the Father’s) glory and the express image of His Person (the Father’s Person – Heb. 1:3)” as “God with us” (Matthew 1:23) as a fully complete man person (Heb. 2:17). 
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The scriptures inform us that the child born and Son given existed as the impersonal word of God the Father as His own expressed thought before being granted a life by the Father. For Christ Jesus as a true man said in John 5:26 (BSB), “For as the Father has life in Himself, so also He has granted the Son to have life in Himself.” Since the Son of God as the Son of God was “granted … life in himself,” we know that the Son is the man who was granted life as a true man within the Hebrew virgin. Therefore the Son could not be a timeless God the Son Person beside God the Father, as the scriptures say that the Son is “the brightness of His (the Father’s) glory and the express image of His Person (the Father’s Person – Heb. 1:3)” as “God with us” (Matthew 1:23) as a fully complete man person (Heb. 2:17). 
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The Impersonal Word Became Personal, 1 John 1:1-2

Jesus as God incarnate came into the world as God the Father manifested in the flesh. However, the Son of God as the Son of God did not come into the world as a pre-incarnate Son. As a truly human son, Jesus came into the world just as God’s elect came into the world. Just as John 16:28 says that Jesus came into the world; so does 1 Timothy 6:7 say that "we brought nothing INTO THE WORLD, and we can take nothing out of it." 
The words, "we BROUGHT NOTHING INTO THE WORLD" is the same thing as Jesus saying, “I … have COME INTO THE WORLD.” Just as Jesus came “INTO THE WORLD” - so God’s elect came “INTO THE WORLD.” Since God’s elect did not literally pre-exist in heaven before coming “INTO THE WORLD,” so Jesus did not literally exist as a Son before he came “INTO THE WORLD.” Therefore it is clear that those who were predestined in God’s preconception came into the world from the Father because God "FOREKNEW" His elect in heaven before they actually came into the world (Ephesians 1:4-5; Romans 8:29)." 
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Jesus as God incarnate came into the world as God the Father manifested in the flesh. However, the Son of God as the Son of God did not come into the world as a pre-incarnate Son. As a truly human son, Jesus came into the world just as God’s elect came into the world. Just as John 16:28 says that Jesus came into the world; so does 1 Timothy 6:7 say that "we brought nothing INTO THE WORLD, and we can take nothing out of it." 
The words, "we BROUGHT NOTHING INTO THE WORLD" is the same thing as Jesus saying, “I … have COME INTO THE WORLD.” Just as Jesus came “INTO THE WORLD” - so God’s elect came “INTO THE WORLD.” Since God’s elect did not literally pre-exist in heaven before coming “INTO THE WORLD,” so Jesus did not literally exist as a Son before he came “INTO THE WORLD.” Therefore it is clear that those who were predestined in God’s preconception came into the world from the Father because God "FOREKNEW" His elect in heaven before they actually came into the world (Ephesians 1:4-5; Rom

How Did Jesus Come Into The World? John 16:28

The preponderance of early Greek manuscripts and of the earliest Christian commentators read “only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father” long before the words “only begotten God” appeared. Therefore the historical evidence proves that the correct translation of John 1:18 should read “only begotten Son” and not “only begotten God.” 
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The preponderance of early Greek manuscripts and of the earliest Christian commentators read “only begotten Son who is in the bosom of the Father” long before the words “only begotten God” appeared. Therefore the historical evidence proves that the correct translation of John 1:18 should read “only begotten Son” and not “only begotten God.”
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Only Begotten God or Only Begotten Son, John 1:18

The scriptures inform us that both the Father and the Son send the Holy Spirit. Jesus said that he is the one who sends the promise of the Father and baptizes with the Holy Spirit because Jesus is God with us as a man who does the works of the Father Himself (John 10:37). 
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The scriptures inform us that both the Father and the Son send the Holy Spirit. Jesus said that he is the one who sends the ...

How Can God Send His Own Holy Spirit? John 15:26

Paul wrote to the Corinthians, "I betrothed you to ONE HUSBAND, to present you as a pure virgin to Christ (2 Cor. 11:2)." 
If Christ is not the only true "God manifested in the flesh, justified in the Spirit" (1 Tim. 3:16) then we have two Spirit Husbands. Yet Paul wrote that we have "ONE HUSBAND" as we will be presented "as a pure virgin to Christ." Therefore Jesus Christ must be Yahweh God who came to save us as a man through the Hebrew virgin. 
"For your husband is your Maker, Whose name is the LORD (YHWH) of hosts (Isaiah 54:5)." 
Hosea 2:19 and Jer. 31:32 also state that the only true God is our spiritual Husband. 
Arians such as Jehovah’s Witnesses affirm that Jesus is an angel, Socinian Unitarians affirm that Jesus is just a man, and Trinitarians affirm that Jesus is one of 3 coequally distinct Divine Persons. No Christian group other than Oneness Apostolic Pentecostals can truly affirm that we believe in “ONE HUSBAND” as the true bride of Jesus Christ. For only Oneness Apostolic believers can adequately explain how the church is presented to "ONE HUSBAND" who is Jesus Christ. 
Since God our heavenly Father is our husband and Jesus Christ is our husband, Jesus Christ must be our Heavenly Father who became a true man to save us as our “one husband.” If not, then we have two husbands (the Father and the Son). Hence, Arianism, Socinianism, and Trinitarianism has God the Father as our husband while calling Jesus another distinct husband. Can the bride of Christ be the bride of two or three husbands without violating inspired scripture? 
Can two or three divine persons be "one husband?" "I betrothed you to ONE HUSBAND, to present you as a pure virgin to Christ (2 Cor. 11:2)." 
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Paul wrote to the Corinthians, "I betrothed you to ONE HUSBAND, to present you as a pure virgin to Christ (2 Cor. 11:2)." If Christ ...

The Bride of Christ Has One Husband, Isaiah 54:5, 2 Corinthians 11:2

Hebrews 1:3 states that Jesus is “the brightness of His glory and the express image of His Person.” 
How can Jesus be “the express image” or “the EXACT LIKENESS THE FATHER’S PERSON” and not be that Father with us reproduced as a true man through the virgin? For the only true God the Father said in Isaiah 46:9, "I am God and there is none else, I AM GOD AND THERE IS NONE LIKE ME?" 
Since Jesus Christ is like God, He must be that "God with us" as a true man. 
21st Century Reformation Unitarians affirm that the indwelling Holy Spirit is Jesus Christ while claiming that Jesus is only a mere man. Yet how can a mere man be omnipresent like God and not be that God? 
No verse of scripture ever says that a created angelic being or created human being can be in more than one location at a time? 
Only the Most High God "fills heaven and earth" (Jer. 23:24). Yet Jesus "fills all things" according to Ephesians 4:10. 
“He who descended is Himself also He who ascended far above all the heavens, so that HE MIGHT FILL ALL THINGS.” Ephesians 4:10 NASB 
Only God is the omnipresent Spirit who can hear and answer prayer, but Jesus said in John 14:13, "If you shall ask anything in my name I WILL DO IT." 
How can Jesus hear and answer prayers as God if he is not the omnipresent Spirit who fills all things? 
Jesus said, "My sheep hear My voice and another they will not follow." 
How can all of God's elect worldwide hear Jesus' voice if He is not the omnipresent God who became a man to save us? 
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Hebrews 1:3 states that Jesus is “the brightness of His glory and the express image of His Person.”
How can Jesus be “the express image” or “the EXACT LIKENESS THE FATHER’S PERSON” and not be that Father with us reproduced as a true man through the virgin? For the only true God the Father said in Isaiah 46:9, "I am God and there is none else, I AM GOD AND THERE IS NONE LIKE ME?"
Since Jesus Christ is like God, He must be that "God with us" as a true man. 
21st Century Reformation Unitarians affirm that the indwelling Holy Spirit is Jesus Christ while claiming that Jesus is only a mere man. Yet how can a mere man be omnipresent like God and not be that God? 
No verse of scripture ever says that a created angelic being or created human being can be in more than one location at a time?
Only the Most High God "fills heaven and earth" (Jer. 23:24). Yet Jesus "fills all things" according to Ephesians 4:10. 
“He who descended is Himself also He who ascended far above all the heavens, so that 

Jesus Has The Attributes of God, Isaiah 46:9

When Jesus was asked, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you SEEN ABRAHAM?" Jesus replied, "Before Abraham was born, I AM." 
Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was born, I was” as if he was created before Abraham. Jesus clearly said, “before Abraham was born, I am.” By saying, “I AM,” Jesus affirmed that he always pre-existed as the timeless God of Exodus 3:14. For if Jesus meant the same thing as saying, “I am Jesus the Messiah,” then why would the Jewish Pharisees have “picked up stones to throw at him?” 
The Pharisees knew that Jesus had used “I AM” in the same manner that God the Father used “I AM” in Exodus 3:14. That is why they picked up stones to kill him. 
“God said to Moses, ‘I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: I AM has sent me to you.'" Exodus 3:14 
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When Jesus was asked, "You are not yet fifty years old, and have you SEEN ABRAHAM?" Jesus replied, "Before Abraham was born, I AM." 
Jesus did not say, “Before Abraham was born, I was” as if he was created before Abraham. Jesus clearly said, “before Abraham was born, I am.” By saying, “I AM,” Jesus affirmed that he always pre-existed as the timeless God of Exodus 3:14. For if Jesus meant the same thing as saying, “I am Jesus the Messiah,” then why would the Jewish Pharisees have “picked up stones to throw at him?” 
The Pharisees knew that Jesus had used “I AM” in the same manner that God the Father used “I AM” in Exodus 3:14. That is why they picked up stones to kill him. 
“God said to Moses, ‘I AM WHO I AM. This is what you are to say to the Israelites: I AM has sent me to you.'" Exodus 3:14
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Did Jesus Pre-Exist His Birth? John 8:58 Ego Eimi

Why does Jesus say the Holy Spirit will ‘not speak of Himself; but whatever He hears, He will speak’ in John 16:13-15? This passage would make no sense if the Holy Spirit that Jesus referenced here is God the Father as God the Father. For it is impossible that the Father would not be able to “speak of Himself” but only what “He shall hear.” 
Likewise, it would not be possible for an alleged non-Incarnate Trinitarian God the Holy Spirit to not be able to “speak of Himself,” but only what “He shall hear” from God. For if an alleged coequal God the Holy Spirit Person could not speak of Himself without having to hear from God, then that God Person could not be an omniscient coequally distinct Divine Person. Therefore it would be nonsensical for an alleged coequal God the Holy Spirit Person to not be able to speak for Himself because He would be fully omniscient as a true God Person. 
This passage only makes sense in light of Oneness Theology. For the Spirit of Christ who was formed in the virgin, only speaks what He hears from the Father. 
John 14:10 “The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own self (ematau – of myself), but the Father abiding in Me does His works.” 
John 14:24 “… and the word which you hear is not Mine, but the Fathers’ who sent Me.” 
John 5:30 “I can do NOTHING ON MY OWN SELF (ematau – of my own “SELF”), AS I HEAR, I judge …” Here we find that Jesus as a Son could do nothing on his own “self,” as he only spoke and did what he heard from the Father. 
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Why does Jesus say the Holy Spirit will 'not speak of Himself; but whatever He hears, He will speak' in John 16:13-15?

The Holy Spirit Speaks What He Hears, John 16:13-15

Although John 16:13 proves that the Holy Spirit of Christ would not “not speak on His own accord,” but only what “He hears,” from the Father, the indwelling Spirit of truth would also be the Father’s own omnipresent Spirit in a new manifestation that God never had before the ascension of Christ (Ephesians 4:10; 1 Corinthians 15:45). That is why Jesus explained what he meant in the next verse (vs. 14) - “All things that THE FATHER HAS ARE MINE; THEREFORE I SAID that HE (the Father) will take what is mine and declare it to you.” 
The Father would glorify the man Christ Jesus because the Father would “TAKE OF MINE” (The Father would TAKE OF Christ’s human spirit of priestly knowledge and intercession) “and declare it to you.” Hence, the things that belonged to the human Son are now made known to Christ’s true disciples through the Father’s indwelling “Spirit of truth” who was with the disciples as a man, but would later be in the disciples as the Father’s Spirit of truth which is Christ. 
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Although John 16:13 proves that the Holy Spirit of Christ would not “not speak on His own accord,” but only what “He hears,” from the Father, the indwelling Spirit of truth would also be the Father’s own omnipresent Spirit in a new manifestation that God never had before the ascension of Christ (Ephesians 4:10; 1 Corinthians 15:45). That is why Jesus explained what he meant in the next verse (vs. 14) - “All things that THE FATHER HAS ARE MINE; THEREFORE I SAID that HE (the Father) will take what is mine and declare it to you.”
The Father would glorify the man Christ Jesus because the Father would “TAKE OF MINE” (The Father would TAKE OF Christ’s human spirit of priestly knowledge and intercession) “and declare it to you.” Hence, the things that belonged to the human Son are now made known to Christ’s true disciples through the Father’s indwelling “Spirit of truth” who was with the disciples as a man, but would later be in the disciples as the Father’s Spirit of truth which is Christ.
S

God Took of Christ’s Human Spirit of Priestly-ness, JOHN 16:13-14-15

Romans 8:26-27 “…the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself intercedes for us with groanings too deep for words; … He intercedes for the saints according to the will of God.” 
Trinitarians cannot explain how an alleged coequal God the Holy Spirit Person “intercedes for the saints according to the will of God.” For an alleged non-incarnate coequally distinct God the Holy Spirit Person cannot intercede to a higher authority above Himself without being a part of the creation. In like manner, Arians such as the Jehovah’s Witnesses cannot explain how an alleged active force of Jehovah could be said to intercede to God the Father without being personal. Furthermore, Socinians like Anthony Buzzard, Dan Gill, Dale Tuggy, and Sean Finnegan at 21st Century Reformation cannot explain how the Holy Spirit of the Father can intercede to God while still being God. 
Only Oneness Theology can explain this seemingly difficult passage of scripture. The Holy Spirit of the only true God the Father also became a man through descending upon the Hebrew virgin as recorded in Luke 1:35 and Matthew 1:20. Therefore the indwelling Holy Spirit is the Lord Jesus who “is the Spirit” (2 Cor. 3:17) “who also intercedes for us.” 
Romans 8:34 goes on to say, “Christ Jesus is he who died … who was raised … at the right hand of God, who also intercedes for us.” 
Romans 8:9 opens with “the Spirit of God” being identified as “the Spirit of Christ.” 
“But you are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that THE SPIRIT OF GOD dwells in you. Now if any man have not THE SPIRIT OF CHRIST, he is none of His.” 
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Romans 8:26-27 “…the Spirit also helps our weakness; for we do not know how to pray as we should, but the Spirit Himself ...

How Can the Holy Spirit Intercede? Romans 8:26-27

If a second God the Son Person left heaven to become a man, then “Jesus Christ” could not be said to exist “the same yesterday, today, and forever.” Therefore, those who hold the kenosis Trinitarian view are clearly violating Malachi 3:6 which says, “I am Yahweh, I CHANGE NOT,” and Hebrews 13:8 which says, “Jesus Christ THE SAME yesterday, today, and forever.” 
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If a second God the Son Person left heaven to become a man, then “Jesus Christ” could not be said to exist “the same yesterday, ...

Jesus Christ The Same Yesterday, Today, And Forever, Hebrews 13:8

Could the angels have been worshipping three distinct Jehovah God Persons as one deity by saying, “holy, holy, holy” three times, once for each distinct true God Person of a Trinity? There is absolutely no evidence to substantiate this claim. Repeating something three times is likely a Hebrew idiom for expressing emphasis just as Jeremiah 22:29 says, “O earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the LORD.” 
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Could the angels have been worshipping three distinct Jehovah God Persons as one deity by saying, “holy, holy, holy” three times, once for each distinct true God Person of a Trinity? There is absolutely no evidence to substantiate this claim. Repeating something three times is likely a Hebrew idiom for expressing emphasis just as Jeremiah 22:29 says, “O earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the LORD.”
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Are There 3 Holy God Persons of a Trinity? Revelation 4:8, Isaiah 6:3

The contextual order of Hebrews 1:3 shows that the Word of His Power is the word of the Father's power. "He (the Son) is the brightness of His glory (the Father's) and (the Son is) the exact image of His Person (the Father's), and upholds all things (the Son uphold all things) by the word of His power (the Father's)." 
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The contextual order of Hebrews 1:3 shows that the Word of His Power is the word of the Father's power. "He (the Son) is the brightness of His glory (the Father's) and (the Son is) the exact image of His Person (the Father's), and upholds all things (the Son uphold all things) by the word of His power (the Father's)."
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Whose Word is the Word of God? Hebrews 1:3

Jesus is “the image of the invisible God” as the image of the invisible Father because he was “reproduced” as a “copy” of the Father’s Being within a bodily form. 
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Jesus is “the image of the invisible God” as the image of the invisible Father because he was “reproduced” as a “copy” of the Father’s Being within a bodily form.
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Jesus Is The Reproduced Copy Of The Father, Hebrews 1:3

“THESE THINGS SAID ISAIAH, WHEN HE SAW HIS GLORY, AND SPOKE OF HIM.” John 12:41 
Isaiah spoke of Christ’s glory in prophetic visions throughout the book of Isaiah but the apostle John never wrote anything to affirm that Isaiah saw the Son as God on the throne in Isaiah 6:1-3. The context of John chapter twelves proves that John had cited various passages from the prophet Isaiah to show that Jesus fulfilled various Messianic prophesies but John never wrote that Isaiah saw the Son as the Son of God on the throne. That is wishful eisegesis on the part of Trinitarian scholars. 
How did the prophet Isaiah see Christ’s GLORY? 
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE MINISTRY OF MIRACLES – Isaiah 33:5 
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE VIRGIN BIRTH AS IMMANUEL, GOD WITH US – Isaiah 7:14 
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE NAME being called the same Name as “THE MIGHTY GOD” and “Everlasting Father.” Isaiah 9:6 
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE ASCENSION TO THE THRONE OF DAVID which scripture proves is the EVERLASTING THRONE OF YAHWEH – Isaiah 9:7. 
1 Chronicles 29:23 calls the throne of David “THE THRONE OF YAHWEH.” 
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“THESE THINGS SAID ISAIAH, WHEN HE SAW HIS GLORY, AND SPOKE OF HIM.” John 12:41 
Isaiah spoke of Christ’s glory in prophetic visions throughout the book of Isaiah but the apostle John never wrote anything to affirm that Isaiah saw the Son as God on the throne in Isaiah 6:1-3. The context of John chapter twelves proves that John had cited various passages from the prophet Isaiah to show that Jesus fulfilled various Messianic prophesies but John never wrote that Isaiah saw the Son as the Son of God on the throne. That is wishful eisegesis on the part of Trinitarian scholars. 
How did the prophet Isaiah see Christ’s GLORY? 
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE MINISTRY OF MIRACLES – Isaiah 33:5
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE VIRGIN BIRTH AS IMMANUEL, GOD WITH US – Isaiah 7:14
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE NAME being called the same Name as “THE MIGHTY GOD” and “Everlasting Father.” Isaiah 9:6
He saw CHRIST’S FUTURE ASCENSION TO THE THRONE OF DAVID which scripture proves is the EVERLASTING THRONE OF YAHWEH – Isaiah 9:

Isaiah Saw Christ’s Glory, John 12:41

Description: The scriptural evidence proves that Jesus was given glory before the world was created in God’s predestined plan long before he actually experienced that glory. 
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Description: The scriptural evidence proves that Jesus was given glory before the world was created in God’s predestined plan long before he actually experienced that glory.
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What Glory Did Jesus Have With The Father? John 17:5

The Greek text proves that Jesus Christ as a man began to exist in the form of God through his virgin conception and birth rather than always being in the form of God throughout eternity past. The word “form,” in the original Greek is “morphe,” which means “form” or “outward appearance.” Hence, Philippians 2:5-9 is not speaking about an unseen spiritual form existing with God prior to the incarnation, but rather, a physical and tangible image of the invisible God (Colossians 1:15) that was made visible for all to see after he was “made of a woman (Galatians 4:4/Luke 1:35/Hebrews 2:9/Romans 1:3-4).” Hence, the "form" (morphe) of God in Philippians 2:6-7 must be an "outward form" or physical "image" (Colossians 1:15) as "the word made flesh" (John 1:14) rather than an alleged invisible unseen image before the incarnation. 
Mark 16:12 is the only other place in the Greek NT that uses the Greek word "morphe.” The text says that "Jesus appeared in a different form (a resurrected morphe)." We know that Jesus could not have appeared in an invisible form after his resurrection or Docetism would be true. Therefore the meaning of the Greek word “morphe,” translated as “form” in Philippians 2:6, proves that a visible and tangible form or image of the invisible God was already made flesh rather than an alleged pre-incarnate form or image. 
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The Greek text proves that Jesus Christ as a man began to exist in the form of God through his virgin conception and birth rather ...

Did Jesus Always Exist in the Form of God? Philippians 2:5-6-7

The inspired author of Hebrews cited Psalm 8:5-6 referencing Jesus as the One who is appointed to rule over the works of God the Father’s hands in Heb. 2:7. Therefore, the Son of God did not create anything as a Son because the scriptures clearly prove that the Father created all things alone and by Himself via His unseen hands. 
Since Jesus is the full incarnation of God (the Father), Jesus is also spoken of as Yahweh God the creator (as the Father). 
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The inspired author of Hebrews cited Psalm 8:5-6 referencing Jesus as the One who is appointed to rule over the works of God the Father’s hands in Heb. 2:7. Therefore, the Son of God did not create anything as a Son because the scriptures clearly prove that the Father created all things alone and by Himself via His unseen hands.
Since Jesus is the full incarnation of God (the Father), Jesus is also spoken of as Yahweh God the creator (as the Father).
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